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622 EST Final Ver B

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A neuron is _________.
a.
a cell that destroys disease-causing viruses and bacteria a cell
b.
produced in red bone marrow
c.
the basic cell of the nervous system
d.
the part of a muscle that does not move
 

 2. 

Blood is sent from the heart to the lungs to be oxygenated in a process known as _________.
a.
pulmonary circulation
b.
respiration
c.
catabolism
d.
exhalation
 

 3. 

As one of the major body organs, the kidneys have the function of _________.
a.
eliminating feces
b.
circulating blood
c.
discharging bile
d.
excreting urine
 

 4. 

Neurons are made up of _________.
a.
muscles
b.
nerves
c.
epithelial tissue
d.
connective tissue
 

 5. 

Estheticians do NOT study anatomy in order to _________.
a.
understand how the human body functions as an integrated whole
b.
be able to recognize changes in the skin over time
c.
understand the effects services have on the body
d.
give medical advice
 

 6. 

Joints come in two types: _________.
a.
small and large
b.
movable and immovable
c.
simple and complex
d.
single and double
 

 7. 

Involuntary muscles are controlled by the _________.
a.
peripheral nervous system
b.
central nervous system
c.
autonomic nervous system
d.
biologic nervous system
 

 8. 

What is the strongest bone of the face?
a.
Maxilla
b.
Zygomatic bone
c.
Mandible
d.
Lacrimal bone
 

 9. 

Where are the most fragile bones in the face?
a.
Jaw
b.
Eye socket
c.
Nose
d.
Cheeks
 

 10. 

Someone who smokes an e-cigarette that contains nicotine will experience _________.
a.
erosion of the stomach lining
b.
destruction of the salivary glands
c.
contraction of the blood vessels
d.
dilation of the esophagus
 

 11. 

Sunburn and cancer are caused by _________ rays.
a.
UVA
b.
UVD
c.
UVC
d.
UVB
 

 12. 

Phytoestrogens are created by the chemical processes of _________.
a.
animals other than humans
b.
minerals
c.
humans
d.
plants
 

 13. 

The ability for skin to stretch and return to firmness is caused by _________.
a.
melanin
b.
collagen
c.
elastin
d.
keratin
 

 14. 

UVA radiation does NOT _________.
a.
weaken the skin's collagen
b.
cause genetic damage
c.
cause wrinkles
d.
cause sunburn
 

 15. 

The type of light wavelength that ranges between 320 and 400 nanometers and penetrates deep into the skin is _________.
a.
UVA radiation
b.
HEV light
c.
UVC radiation
d.
UVB radiation
 

 16. 

What is true of all hair on the human body?
a.
It can be seen with the naked eye.
b.
It is an appendage of the skin.
c.
It has nerve endings.
d.
It has sensation.
 

 17. 

Isabel is a young woman with a normal rate of hair growth and hasn't gotten a haircut for the past four months. How much has her hair likely grown?
a.
1 inch
b.
2 inches
c.
3 inches
d.
6 inches
 

 18. 

What condition, related to circulation, causes the skin under the nails to turn purplish or blue?
a.
Melanoma
b.
Keratosis
c.
Cyanosis
d.
Elastosis
 

 19. 

Afferent nerves is another term for _________.
a.
efferent nerves
b.
sensory nerves
c.
motor nerves
d.
secretory nerves
 

 20. 

What does exfoliation removes and deplete?
a.
Leukocytes
b.
T cells
c.
Lipids
d.
Lymph
 

 21. 

The condition that presents as redness and bumpiness in the cheeks or upper arms is called _________.
a.
keratoma
b.
keratosis pilaris
c.
hyperkeratosis
d.
psoriasis
 

 22. 

Sebaceous filaments are often found on the _________.
a.
ears
b.
neck
c.
nose
d.
chin
 

 23. 

Adrenaline helps the body to _________.
a.
digest food
b.
cope with stressful events
c.
fall asleep
d.
regulate its temperature
 

 24. 

Acne is a condition which _________.
a.
only occurs during a person's teenage years is
b.
usually caused by environmental conditions
c.
is a disorder of the sebaceous glands.
d.
is a disorder of the sudoriferous glands.
 

 25. 

What is characteristic of the condition known as rosacea?
a.
Groups of red blisters that form a rash in the shape of a ring or line
b.
Red patches covered with white-silver scales
c.
Inflammation, dry or oily scaling or crusting, and/or itchiness
d.
Visible vessels and skin sensitivity
 

 26. 

Pityriasis versicolor is also known as _________.
a.
leukoderma
b.
tinea versicolor
c.
vitiligo
d.
albinism
 

 27. 

The itchy feeling that often accompanies contact dermatitis is caused by _________.
a.
histamines
b.
eczema
c.
psoriasis
d.
keratosis
 

 28. 

Disorders of the skin are _________.
a.
rarely genetic
b.
almost always contagious
c.
cannot be treated by estheticians
d.
difficult to categorize
 

 29. 

PCOS does NOT typically include _________ among its symptoms.
a.
hair growth
b.
sleeplessness
c.
hair loss
d.
acne
 

 30. 

Alcohol consumption might be limited for a client with _________.
a.
melanoma
b.
varicose veins
c.
telangiectasia
d.
rosacea
 

 31. 

Which of the following is TRUE of diseases spread by direct transmission and indirect transmission?
a.
Both diseases spread by direct and indirect transmission can live for long periods of time away from a host.
b.
Neither diseases spread by direct nor indirect transmission can live for long periods of time away from a host.
c.
Diseases spread by direct transmission can live for long periods of time away from a host, whereas those spread by indirect transmission cannot.
d.
Diseases spread by indirect transmission can live for long periods of time away from a host, whereas those spread by direct transmission cannot.
 

 32. 

What is a microorganism?
a.
any infectious organism
b.
any living organism
c.
any plant-based organism
d.
any organism of microscopic size
 

 33. 

Pathogenic bacteria ______.
a.
help the body break down food
b.
cause disease or infection
c.
positively stimulate the immune system
d.
keep the body healthy
 

 34. 

What are disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids, such as hepatitis and HIV, called?
a.
mycobacteria
b.
systemic infections
c.
bloodborne pathogens
d.
bloodborne viruses
 

 35. 

Which of the following will NOT necessarily be on the label of an EPA-registered disinfectant?
a.
the word concentrate
b.
efficacy claims
c.
a contact time
d.
a registration number
 

 36. 

If there is no time specified or recommended by the manufacturer of the disinfectant, for how long must a tool be left fully submersed in the disinfectant?
a.
10 seconds
b.
10 minutes
c.
1 hour
d.
10 hours
 

 37. 

Which of the following is TRUE of chlorine bleach?
a.
It is not corrosive.
b.
It is safe to use with all plastics.
c.
It is an effective disinfectant.
d.
It cannot be safely used in salons, spas, or barbershops.
 

 38. 

Which of the following should be performed after removing one pair of gloves and before putting on a new pair?
a.
change the mask
b.
change clothes
c.
wash hands
d.
nothing
 

 39. 

Heidi has been extremely careful on the job this week in an effort to avoid catching the virus (which is NOT an airborne virus) running through nearly every other employee's immune system. As part of her efforts, she has not had any physical contact with any of her coworkers. If she has in fact avoided all contact with others, which of the following is TRUE?
a.
Heidi will catch the virus.
b.
Heidi cannot catch the virus.
c.
If Heidi catches the virus, it will only have been through direct transmission.
d.
If Heidi catches the virus, it will only have been through indirect transmission.
 

 40. 

Harold's business requires a strict adherence to proper infection control. He knows that achieving effective infection control is a two-step process. Which of the following two steps is Harold likely to use for the majority of his business?
a.
cleaning and sanitizing
b.
cleaning and disinfecting
c.
disinfecting and sanitizing
d.
sanitizing and sterilizing
 

 41. 

Rafael is midway through a service when he notices that his client Jasmine has a small, fresh cut. After stopping the service, what is the very next thing Rafael should do?
a.
Recommend that Jasmine see a physician.
b.
Properly clean his tools.
c.
Pat the injured area dry with a clean paper towel.
d.
Inform Jasmine of what has happened.
 

 42. 

Erythema is a condition defined by _________.
a.
excess hair growth
b.
visible distended capillaries
c.
UV damage to the epidermis
d.
redness caused by inflammation
 

 43. 

A T-zone is _________.
a.
a classification that describes a person's genetic skin attributes
b.
a scale used to measure the skin type's ability to tolerate sun exposure
c.
the center area of the face corresponding to the T shape
d.
a discoloration from melanin production due to sun or other factors
 

 44. 

Before performing any service, estheticians must have a full awareness of _________.
a.
the client's skin type
b.
the client's exercise regimen
c.
the client's diet
d.
the client's ethnicity
 

 45. 

The two skin types which have similar levels of hydration are _________.
a.
oily and normal
b.
oily and combination
c.
normal and dry
d.
combination and dry
 

 46. 

The most difficult type of skin to treat well is _________.
a.
Fitzpatrick skin type 1
b.
Fitzpatrick skin type 2
c.
Fitzpatrick skin type 4
d.
Fitzpatrick skin type 6
 

 47. 

What form releases the esthetician from liability resulting from treatment?
a.
Intake form
b.
Client chart
c.
Consent form
d.
Consultation card
 

 48. 

One benefit of using a mask is _________.
a.
it hydrates, nourishes, and soothes the skin
b.
it firms and strengthens the skin
c.
it reduces lines and premature aging of the skin
d.
it enhances eyelash growth
 

 49. 

An astringent is _________.
a.
a soap or detergent that deeply cleans the skin
b.
a water-based liquid that helps remove excess oil from the skin
c.
a lubricant ingredient derived from plant oils or animal fats
d.
a special cleanser designed primarily to remove heavier makeup
 

 50. 

When it comes to products and ingredients, the first responsibility of skin care professionals to their clients is _________.
a.
to recommend only the most affordable products
b.
to give the clients the most freedom in choosing products
c.
letting the clients know all effects and potential side effects of any products or ingredients
d.
to use as wide a range of products as possible to test for potential adverse reactions
 

 51. 

Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between the FDA and the cosmetic industry?
a.
The FDA regulates labeling of cosmetics.
b.
The FDA has no relationship with the sale of cosmetics.
c.
The FDA does not regulate the safety of cosmetics.
d.
Packaging of cosmetics must indicate FDA approval.
 

 52. 

What is the goal of treatment for dehydrated skin?
a.
To prevent TEWL
b.
To provide moisturizing, replenishing, and skin-restoring ingredients
c.
To maintain a healthy balance of water and oil
d.
To reduce the overactivity of the oil glands
 

 53. 

One example of an ingredient in a mechanical exfoliant is _________.
a.
hydroxy acids
b.
papaya
c.
gommage
d.
rice bran
 

 54. 

The level of SPF that blocks the highest amount of UVB rays but does NOT contain high amounts of chemical sunscreen ingredients is _________.
a.
SPF 15
b.
SPF 30
c.
SPF 50
d.
SPF 100
 

 55. 

What should the esthetician do after completing the post-consultation with the client?
a.
Record client chart notes and write up retail sales.
b.
Dispose of their gloves and wash their hands.
c.
Wash and disinfect multiuse implements.
d.
Change the linens.
 

 56. 

Clients should be asked to arrive on the day of their facial appointment _________.
a.
30 minutes before the appointment time
b.
15 minutes before the appointment time
c.
5 minutes before the appointment time
d.
exactly at the appointed time
 

 57. 

Skin discoloration is treated with _________.
a.
chemical exfoliants
b.
mechanical exfoliants
c.
granular exfoliants
d.
manual exfoliants
 

 58. 

The two most important parts of the express facial are _________.
a.
steaming and extractions
b.
cleansing and masking
c.
massage and masking
d.
steaming and cleansing
 

 59. 

An ideal treatment for sensitive skin will incorporate _________.
a.
steam extractions
b.
applications using fatty acids and low percentages of AHA
c.
galvanic current
d.
creamy cleansers
 

 60. 

When performing extractions around the nose area, most estheticians use _________.
a.
lancets
b.
cotton swabs
c.
gauze wrapped around gloved fingers
d.
comedone extractors
 

 61. 

What will prevent acne flare-ups and should be recommended after an acne treatment?
a.
mushrooms
b.
dietary yeast
c.
probiotics
d.
dairy
 

 62. 

During a facial, cleanser should be first applied _________.
a.
to the neck, with palms up
b.
to the cheekbones, with palms down
c.
to the neck, with palms down
d.
to the cheekbones, with palms up
 

 63. 

Comedones should be extracted _________.
a.
with the nails
b.
with the very tip of the finger
c.
with the side of the fingertip
d.
with the thumbs
 

 64. 

What general rule should be followed when using the comedone extractor?
a.
Use as much pressure as possible
b.
Make sure the lesion is outside of the loop of the extractor
c.
Press gently when extracting
d.
Work quickly
 

 65. 

What is the proper technique for using lancets for extraction?
a.
Always reuse the same lancet.
b.
Pierce the skin vertically.
c.
Hold the lancet at an angle perpendicular to the skin.
d.
Hold the lancet at an angle to the skin that is 35 degrees or less.
 

 66. 

What type of massage involves a soft, continuous stroking movement?
a.
Pétrissage
b.
Effleurage
c.
Vibration
d.
Friction
 

 67. 

What is the most stimulating form of massage is?
a.
Tapotement
b.
Vibration
c.
Effleurage
d.
Friction
 

 68. 

The massage therapy that depends on the use of essential oils is known as _________.
a.
acupressure
b.
shiatsu
c.
pressure point massage
d.
aromatherapy massage
 

 69. 

Manual lymph drainage's main purpose is to _________.
a.
reduce swelling
b.
promote mental relaxation
c.
increase blood flow
d.
stimulate chi
 

 70. 

A client who would likely benefit the most from electrotherapy would be _________.
a.
a wealthy pregnant client who demands the latest technology
b.
a client with braces who has received the gift of a facial for her seventeenth birthday
c.
an elderly male client with a pacemaker who is allergic to aromatherapy products
d.
a retired woman who has spent her entire life in a tropical climate
 

 71. 

Hot towels are the most effective in _________.
a.
the removal of facial masks
b.
microdermabrasion
c.
advanced peels
d.
advanced exfoliation
 

 72. 

What does a diopter measure?
a.
Magnification
b.
Heat
c.
Brightness
d.
Length
 

 73. 

When using a vacuum machine, it is usually enough to make _________.
a.
only one pass
b.
up to 3 passes
c.
3–5 passes
d.
5–6 passes
 

 74. 

The spray machine should not be used on a client with _________.
a.
high blood pressure
b.
dry skin
c.
respiratory issues
d.
braces
 

 75. 

Estheticians can cut their service time in half by learning the technique known as speed _________.
a.
waxing
b.
sugaring
c.
depilation
d.
electrolysis
 

 76. 

A waxing would be likely both successful and beneficial for _________.
a.
a client who has arrived to the appointment after spending an hour in a tanning booth
b.
a client who has used a loofah and exfoliating scrub immediately before the service
c.
a client who has not shaved for two weeks
d.
a client whose untreated hair is less than mc076-1.jpg inch long
 

 77. 

An aspect of applying soft wax to the axilla that does not generally pertain to hard waxing of the same area is _________.
a.
evaluating the directions of growth on each axilla separately
b.
applying lotion
c.
having the client turn the face away during removal
d.
bolstering the back with a towel
 

 78. 

The area that may be waxed as part of a back waxing with soft wax but not with hard wax is _________.
a.
the front of the shoulders
b.
the arms
c.
the back of the shoulders
d.
the spine
 

 79. 

Approximately how long will a half leg treatment take with soft wax?
a.
15 minutes
b.
30 minutes
c.
45 minutes
d.
1 hour
 

 80. 

What color is NOT a primary color?
a.
Red
b.
Black
c.
Blue
d.
Yellow
 

 81. 

Even parts of two primary colors are mixed to make _________.
a.
brown
b.
black
c.
blue-green
d.
violet
 

 82. 

What does the addition of black to a pure hue create?
a.
Tone
b.
Shade
c.
Value
d.
Tint
 

 83. 

A yellow undertone characterizes all _________.
a.
cool colors
b.
warm colors
c.
saturated colors
d.
desaturated colors
 

 84. 

Because of its durability, _________ is an excellent choice for bridal makeup.
a.
greasepaint
b.
silicone-based products
c.
cake makeup
d.
water-based products
 

 85. 

In order to set foundation, _________ is used.
a.
concealer
b.
face powder
c.
blush
d.
highlighter
 

 86. 

What does mascara darken and thicken?
a.
Eyebrows
b.
Eyelids
c.
Eyelashes
d.
Area around the eye
 

 87. 

In order to blend foundation, concealer, and powder, a makeup artist uses _________.
a.
sponges
b.
spatulas
c.
cotton swabs
d.
tissues
 

 88. 

What is the only safe type of pencil to use on a client?
a.
One with a felt tip
b.
One with an autoroller
c.
One that can be sharpened
d.
One that cannot be made too sharp
 

 89. 

How often should clients replace their mascara?
a.
Every week
b.
Every month
c.
Every three months
d.
Every six months
 

 90. 

What are the type of artificial lashes are small clusters of three or four lashes on one point of attachment?
a.
Strip lashes
b.
Band lashes
c.
Tabs
d.
Individual lashes
 

 91. 

What is the rule to follow when removing a client's artificial lashes?
a.
Start from the outer corner
b.
Start from the inner corner
c.
Pull out, away from the skin
d.
Remove as quickly as possible
 

 92. 

What do the terms superficial peeling, exfoliation, keratolysis, and desquamation refer to?
a.
Removal of dead skin cells
b.
Hair removal
c.
Ultrasound techniques
d.
Lymphatic drainage
 

 93. 

The peels that typically have the lowest pH are _________.
a.
physician peels
b.
spa peels
c.
over-the-counter peels
d.
AHA home care peels
 

 94. 

What AHA penetrates the epidermis most effectively?
a.
Lactic acid
b.
Citric acid
c.
Glycolic acid
d.
Tartaric acid
 

 95. 

When using LEDs, the eyes and _________ must be protected.
a.
the nose
b.
the mouth
c.
the thyroid
d.
the liver
 

 96. 

How often should microcurrent treatments occur for visible results?
a.
Daily for 10 days
b.
Once a week for 10 sessions
c.
Twice a month for 5 sessions
d.
Once a month for a year
 

 97. 

What is the primary cause of cellulite?
a.
A low-fiber diet
b.
Mental and emotional stress
c.
An overly hydrated epidermis
d.
Female hormones and genetics
 

 98. 

Before and after surgery, swelling may be reduced with _________.
a.
reflexology
b.
manual lymph drainage
c.
endermology
d.
body wraps
 

 99. 

What is NOT true of MLD (manual lymph drainage)?
a.
It reduces cellulite.
b.
It typically requires advanced training or licensing.
c.
It involves the use of machines.
d.
It works well in conjunction with facials.
 

 100. 

When using crystal-free microdermabrasion, the most common application technique involves _________ passes.
a.
horizontal
b.
vertical
c.
diagonal
d.
cross-hatching
 



 
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